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javispedro's Avatar
Posts: 2,355 | Thanked: 5,249 times | Joined on Jan 2009 @ Barcelona
#43
Originally Posted by olf View Post
Nope, the act of lending is one form of a "transfer of the right of possession".
And while the act of stealing does not include an explicit "transfer of the right of possession", it results in a "adverse possession".
I don't know where you are getting this from, is it a local thing? Can you provide some source on that?

It looks as if you are understanding this in the opposite way to everyone else, including the authors of the GPLv3 (thus your insistent contradiction of the GPLv3 FAQ).

E.g.
Originally Posted by https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Right_of_possession
The company purchasing the vehicle becomes the registered owner and has both possession and right of possession. The financial organization providing financing would become the lienholder and have a security interest that, upon default, would ripen into a right of retention (ius retentionis). If the business that bought the vehicle then rented it to someone, that individual would then have possession but would not have right of possession.
Originally Posted by https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Right_of_possession
I purchase a pen at a store. I have all three attributes (possession, right of possession and right of property). If I loan the pen to someone, they have only possession.
 

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